• flandish@lemmy.world
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      4 days ago

      curious: but why? is there a formula or is it a combination of memorization with relations? ie: “i dont remember the gender of a trash can but I know a cooking pot is male and I cook like trash so a trash can is male?”

      • gustofwind@lemmy.world
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        4 days ago

        usually if it ends in “a” it’s feminine versus “o” for masculine, but there are exceptions for that too!

          • Railcar8095@lemmy.world
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            4 days ago

            And easy. For example “futbolista” is “female football player”, because it ends in “a”, and “futbolista” is “male football player” because… Wait what?

            Another easy example is “mar” (sea). It’s clearly masculine. Except if you’re a poet in love with the sea and you make it female because “no homo” I guess.

            OK, the sea is fluid (pun intended), makes sense. What about the computer? “Computadora” is femenine. But it’s synonym “ordenador” is masculine. So it’s a property of the word, not what it represents. This creates a rare case when someone use the english “desktop” to refer to the computer, but still inherit the female from “computadora”, so it’s “la desktop”.

            Or my favorite, Mano (hand), witch is strong so obviously male. But if it’s little hand (manita) then it’s not strong so female. Except in some counties were remains male.

            Next week in "WTF is wrong with Spanish: ser and estar (“to be” and “to be, but like different”)

            • calcopiritus@lemmy.world
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              4 days ago

              I don’t know what dialect you speak where “Mano” is masculine. In Spain it is feminine, and I’ve never heard anyone say “el mano”. I’ve also never heard anyone say “el manita”.

              I don’t think “ser” and “estar” being different verbs is at all wrong with spanish. They are very clearly different concepts.

              You can be something because it is part of you “I am tall” or you can be something situationally “I am at the library”. What is weird to me is that English uses the same verb for those clearly different concepts.

            • boonhet@sopuli.xyz
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              4 days ago

              Somehow the ser vs estar distinction almost makes sense. I don’t like it but I understand it

      • Lembot_0005@lemy.lol
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        4 days ago

        Last letter/sound matters. Some – female, some – male, some – neutral (we have 3 grammatical genders in my language)

        • flandish@lemmy.world
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          4 days ago

          “matters” but curious where the logic or rules come from and is it harder than expected for folks who cannot hear the sound?

          • Lembot_0005@lemy.lol
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            4 days ago

            logic or rules come from

            That is a “natural” language. Not C++ or Esperanto. No logic. Just bullshit and idiocy.

            is it harder than expected for folks who cannot hear the sound?

            Absolutely trivial for anyone. If the word ends with “a”, it is female. If any consonant – male, “o” – neutral.

            • flandish@lemmy.world
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              4 days ago

              interesting. i know there are some linguistics books out there I may look into any about this. appreciated the replies!

    • matelt@feddit.uk
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      4 days ago

      Nah pal it’s le Nutella. Don’t ask me why cause I don’t know. The word ending in ‘a’ isn’t a valid argument because you don’t drink une Fanta do you? Or do you?

      • calcopiritus@lemmy.world
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        4 days ago

        I believe this comment chain is about spanish, not french.

        In Spanish the last letter of the word is right most of the time. We do say “una Fanta”.